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Lucky Hunter and Corn Mother's avatar

The participants in the study were a minimum of 35 years old and a mean of 50 years old at the time they were sampled between 1998 and 2004. Based on this, the birth years of participants probably range from around 1933 to 1969. During this time frame, there were vary rapid and dramatic increases in the literacy rate in Mexico (https://ourworldindata.org/grapher/cross-country-literacy-rates?tab=chart&country=MEX) that caused a shift from most people being illiterate to most people being literate. I haven't found data on how the timing of this varied regionally in Mexico, but I would guess that there were large regional disparities. Even today, different Mexican states vary quite a bit in average educational attainment (https://wenr.wes.org/2019/05/education-in-mexico-2).

As the Mexico City Prospective Study participants were sampled in middle age in Mexico City, and as a past paper about this study notes, there was lots of migration to Mexico City in the 1950s through 1970s from all over Mexico, especially from the central and southern parts of the country (https://www.nature.com/articles/s41586-023-06595-3). I'm not sure what percent of the study sample grew up in Mexico City, but based on that information, it sounds like there could be lots of participants who grew up in other parts of the country.

The secular increase in education over time in Mexico is clearly environmental, as it is too fast to be genetic. I expect regional variation is due to a combination of environmental and genetic factors (ancestry varies regionally, with generally northern Mexicans having more European ancestry and southern Mexicans having more Indigenous American ancestry).

For the population analysis, if the increases in education over time occurred later in the regions with less European ancestry (I'm guessing this is the case), then you'd expect Indigenous American ancestry to correlate with lower educational attainment, which it does. This would not inherently tell you anything either way about the role of nature vs. nurture in this association, except for the fact that nurture matters enough to cause the temporal changes we see (e.g., from a literacy rate of 39% in 1930 to 83% in 1980: https://ourworldindata.org/grapher/cross-country-literacy-rates?tab=chart&country=MEX).

For the within-family analysis, the temporal trends could be a considerable source of noise. As you note, siblings are only expected to vary by a few percent in terms of their ancestry composition. From 1940 to 1950 in Mexico, literacy rate rose by 1.7% per year. Siblings a few years younger might have significantly higher educational attainment than their older siblings, with an effect greater than you'd expect from their genetic ancestry differences. Of course, in theory this shouldn't confound the model (younger siblings shouldn't have systematically different ancestry composition from their older siblings. Perhaps there could be a sampling bias if initial recruits were more educated and then the recruited siblings were on average older or younger, but I doubt that would be a big effect). However, this extra source of noise would presumably reduce the power somewhat. With access to the data, or some good simulations, perhaps it could be estimated whether this extra noise would lower the power enough to fail to find a within-family effect.

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Gregory Connor's avatar

Nice discussion. I am not sure what you mean by the sentence "In OLS, random measurement or estimation error in a single predictor usually doesn't affect the slope (but does affect r² and thus correlations)." Estimation error in a single predictor creates attenuation bias, which biases the coefficient toward zero. The slope is biased toward zero. I agree there are weird things going on with EA in this study. It might be due to the very noisy 4-category measurement?

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