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Aroka's avatar

I don't know how much of the Flynn effect is a test familiarity effect, but it seems like a significant part of it must be real.

For example, let's take a look at the performance of North Koreans, we know that their IQ (something like 85-90) is 1 SD lower than South Koreans.

Do they do poorly on tests just because of a test bias? Well, we can easily find this by their performance in different categories such as delinquency, income and innovation:

First: income and employment(1)

"More than 60% of the defectors live at Seoul and Metropolitan Area. Before defection, most of them were not employed (49%) or worked as labor workers (39%). Three quarters of them had educational background of high school graduation."

Second: crime rate(1)

"During the last ten years, About 20% of North Korean defectors stayed in South Korea have committed crimes twice much higher than the average crime rate committed by South Koreans. The National Police Agency (2007) reported that 678 criminals (40.2% of the total North Korean defectors) committed crimes of murder, rape, injury and violence."

Third: innovation(2)

For this, the only fair thing I could measure their abstract thinking and creativity at a high level was the math olympiad medals, but even at that they are far worse than South Korea.

It is true that North Korea has a significant number of Math Olympiad medals relative to its population, but South Korea's world ranking in Math Olympiad is 4 and North Korea's is 26, a stark difference.

As you can see, the northerners perform much worse than their southern counterparts, both on average and at a high level, so it seems that at least 50% to 65% of the difference between these two groups is nothing but a real effect on intelligence and The effect is the same as the Flynn effect because the children of North Korean defectors do much better in South Korea than their parents.

Sources:

1-

https://www.kicj.re.kr/board.es?mid=a20201000000&bid=0029&list_no=12533&act=view

2-

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_medal_count_at_International_Mathematical_Olympiad

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Maxim Lott's avatar

The claim that, “people around 1900 would be around 70 on some tests” — obviously, at the time, they got 100 on the tests. Why not just give the exact same test to modern populations, and check the difference? What would that show? Seems everyone has confused themselves with re-meaning things.

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