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If we run the regression y = a*x + b*z + u1 and z = c*x + u2, shouldn't the coefficient "a" pick up all the effect of x? That is, if IQ_child = a*IQ_parent + b*_Income_parent + other_uncorrelated_stuff, shouldn't "a" capture the full effect of IQ_parent?

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B-W gap exists in all countries irrespective of language country speaks, religion, political type, economical type, climate, nutrition e.g. Claiming there's no B-W genetic gap is extraordinary claim, and it should be supported by evidence, not vice versa.

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Probably should point out that the small correlations depend on the variation in admixture(when multiple SIRE groups are used, including those with significant variation in admixture(such as hispnics and multiracial individuals in the US), the correlation is significantly higher(SIRE usually doesn't have too large effects, so i'm not as worried about confounding across Sire groups),(0.41 in TCP/PNC sample(Fuerst et al. 2021), and 0.37 in the ABCD sample).

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>In hindsight, this is not surprising because these are only moderately useful proxies for genetic ancestry, and because within a given admixed group, the Pearson correlation between genetic ancestry and intelligence will be very weak (e.g. r = 0.09 in Lasker 2019), and this is true even if the entirety of the gap is caused by genetics. This is simply due to the range restriction in ancestry (i.e., variance reduction) and the large within population genetic variation in intelligence.

Low ancestry-iq correlations are compatible with large between-group heritabilities because the gap in ancestry between groups is enormous, being on the order of multiple standard deviations.

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It's all so tedious, Emil.

I think hereditarians should focus on creating predictive models that have a real-world impact. There is no end to pilpul from the communist side here.

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> between group heritability is a weird metric. It can be larger than 100%

You're the only other person I've ever encountered who understood this.

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