13 Comments

I'm prepared to think the effects are largely genetic. But can you dismiss the effects of black culture?

Upper-middle-class black kids are more drawn to black culture than white kids in the same class and therefore more inclined to pick up corresponding values. This need not be entirely divorced from genetics and in fact could compound its effects. Imagine a 98 IQ kid with 120 IQ parents who does poorly at school, can't relate to parents' culture, looks to rebel by pursuing a more downscale culture. A white kid in this situation adopts white downscale culture, black kid adopts black downscale culture, one culture is much more criminal than the other.

I've seen this play out in real-time: years ago was acquainted with a situation in which a black kid of solid upper-middle class background was shot dead while engaging in pure ghetto behavior and hanging with a ghetto crew.

When it comes to culture: America is #1 in the world for single-parent homes. And this is driven largely, if not entirely, by a 12% minority! How does fatherlessness compare by class and race? I'm inclined to think far more common among the black upper class than white, but less of a difference in the underclasses. Not sure though.

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Most blacks in the extreme rich are rich because they play sport or rap, not because of intelligence or conscientiousness.

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Reversion towards the mean seems like it could explain the pattern in the chart. However, I think the point of the chart is to illustrate that the means are different in the first place. At the top of your analysis, you stated the assumption that Blacks are one standard deviation below Whites on a broad human capital measurement.

I think Steve Sailer is trying to show evidence of this gap to Good Liberals who would prefer that assumption to not be true. So while I enjoyed your analysis and it made me think twice about the data, I think a better analysis would be to assume that the gap is not true, and then show how statistically unlikely it would be for this amount of data to be collected.

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Reversion towards the mean seems like it could explain the pattern in the chart. However, I think the point of the chart is to illustrate that the two population means are different in the first place. At the top of your analysis, you stated the assumption that Blacks are one standard deviation below Whites on a broad human capital measurement.

I think Steve Sailer is trying to show evidence of this gap to Good Liberals who would prefer that assumption to not be true. So while I enjoyed your analysis and it made me think twice about the data, I think a better analysis would be to assume that the gap is not true, and then show how statistically unlikely it would be for this amount of data to be collected.

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The time series for crime (especially in America) is quite startling. Youth crime in America has almost vanished over the last 30 years. That really should be the focus of attention. How exactly could there no longer be any crime? The lead crime hypothesis is a compelling answer.

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Emil, totally unrelated but do you have any comments on this recent study: https://academic.oup.com/esr/advance-article/doi/10.1093/esr/jcac076/7008955?login=false

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Blacks have about 5% frequency of MAOA 2R allele, which has strong association with crime in males, and it doesn't manifest in females.

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